Interesting fact : with 100 lockpicks and a 50% retaining chance, you will open ~200 Chests.
Why is that? Well here's the theory behind it
You have a certain chance to retain, lets call that X (Retain Chance in Decimal Form)
Yes, we're going back to math class everyone.
P=% of Lockpicks you will use (Assume 100%, so 1)
So great, its just 1 + 1X, right? Well no, because you can retain twice in a row...
So 1 + 1X + 1X^2? No, you can retain more than 2 times in a row.
The answer is actually expressed as a Geometric Series...
Limit 1+X+X^2+X^3 ... X^n
n->∞
"Well how can I add up all that"? Well lucky for you the limit turns out much simpler than it looks...
This limit is actually
1/(1-X)
Yup, thats it!
So for 50%, you plug in .5, and get 2. That means if you have 100 Picks, you can open ~200 Chests. (2x100)
You can use this for any retain %
"What's this good for?"
Well numerous things.
1)You can more accurately determine whether or not it is worth Chestrunning in NM vs HM
2) Figure out your expenses for getting Chest/Lucky Titles
3) More accurately determine your profit margin with opening chests
The Real Significance of Retaining (A Chestrunner Must-Know)
1 pages • Page 1
T
I'm not sure about your math. It confuses me to thing about it, but I think you're missing something. Allow me to try a different approach. With X keys, how many chests will you open?
So with x as number of keys and r as retain rate , it's x+rx...and that's where I think something happens.
xr^2 would indeed be the number left after two runs. Yeah, I guess you're right. That series would be
inf
sum (xr^n)
n=0
Math tells me that if we find m such that mr+1=m, m*x will be the number of chests opened with x keys at r retain rate.
Our rate is 50%, we have 100 keys. .5m+1=m, 1=.5m, m=2. x=100, mx=200. Yeah, you're right. Never mind me, I'm just a blabbering fool.
So with x as number of keys and r as retain rate , it's x+rx...and that's where I think something happens.
xr^2 would indeed be the number left after two runs. Yeah, I guess you're right. That series would be
inf
sum (xr^n)
n=0
Math tells me that if we find m such that mr+1=m, m*x will be the number of chests opened with x keys at r retain rate.
Our rate is 50%, we have 100 keys. .5m+1=m, 1=.5m, m=2. x=100, mx=200. Yeah, you're right. Never mind me, I'm just a blabbering fool.
If I understand this correctly, it's:
100/1+100/2+100/4+100/8+100/16+100/32+100/64+100/128+100/256+...
So if I'd go to just 4096 right there... that makes it 199.975586 chests.
Seems right - it's hard to believe, but statistics say so (disregarding the fact that I may have totally misinterpreted this).
100/1+100/2+100/4+100/8+100/16+100/32+100/64+100/128+100/256+...
So if I'd go to just 4096 right there... that makes it 199.975586 chests.
Seems right - it's hard to believe, but statistics say so (disregarding the fact that I may have totally misinterpreted this).
S
U
Quote:
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Originally Posted by EndlessDivination
Well actually its not common knowledge that the whole problem converges.. Not sure how thats obvious, but ok. Definitely wouldn't learn that in precalc, thats for sure
This is a summation problem, not learned until integrating so.... |
C
Quote:
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Originally Posted by Terra Xin
This thread is like saying 1 + 1 = 1^1(1 x 1)/1 + 2/2... window.
*sigh* The 'real' significance of retaining is that you have a 50% chance that your lockpick wont break, no need to make it complicated when it's already supposed to be understood... 'Simplify, man!' |



